Nostalgia-------year 1904

[MagicRat]

Originally Posted by Joseph1082

All you guys do is keep throwing out flames and rhetorical comments... ok, no more name calling,.

We were not flaming. You were!! Read your posts!! If I was to call you the names going through my head right now, I would be banned.

Originally Posted by Joseph1082

let's get down to business, everybody go look back at the argument. I stated that 1776 was the start of MODERN DEMOCRACY, defined as democracy in the contemporary era, which is that period of time after the renaissance til present day. NOw, it would be pretty immpossible for the Romans or Greeks to have brought democracy to the modern world consider both of their civilizations existed 1000's of years ago. See, after they were gone, Democracy disappeared from the Earth til 1776, 3000zxtt, you agree w/ me, but now MagicRat thinks democracy was started in the 1200s. But aside from a few miscellaneous facts you guys have not brought anything substantial to the table.
Oh, and my Histort knowledge is lacking??? Ok, so, do you guys know about Ancient Bactria? Or about Scipio Africanus, hmmm? well, do you, or are you just going to insist I have inherited nothing.

Well, I shall bring some substance to this 'argument' instead of name dropping obscure Latin references which are not germaine to this discussion.

The Websters definition of democracy:

"Government in which the supreme power is in the hands of the people, who exercise it directly (absolute or pure democracy) or through their chosen representatives (representative democracy) ; also a community or state with such a government."

Now what do you mean by "modern democracy? "

Websters defines "modern" as :

"Of or characteristic of the present or recent times"

Democracy in 1776 was not modern in that it did not resemble what we have today. Women, the poor and blacks could not vote and could not participate in government. The sole people who could exercise representative democracy in 1776 America was a minority of the population - property owning white men.

This is by definition an "oligarchy", per Websters:

"A government in which the power is in the hands of a few persons or a state having such a government, also the group of persons holding the power in such a state."

Therefore, 1776 America had an OLIGARCHY, not a democracy. Furthermore, it was not 'modern' in that it was measurably and substantially different than what we have in our 'modern' times. Just the simple fact that it is much more inclusive, (all citizens can vote) is proof of this.

Finally, you have not addressed my earlier post; by definition, the Electoral College system that America has, is strictly speaking, not democracy.

Oh and while you are cracking the books in your research look up some English history and the role of their parliament in government, which pre dates 1776 by centuries.

I eagerly await your insightful comment.

[91300zxtt]

Originally Posted by MagicRat

We were not flaming. You were!! Read your posts!! If I was to call you the names going through my head right now, I would be banned.



Well, I shall bring some substance to this 'argument' instead of name dropping obscure Latin references which are not germaine to this discussion.

The Websters definition of democracy:

"Government in which the supreme power is in the hands of the people, who exercise it directly (absolute or pure democracy) or through their chosen representatives (representative democracy) ; also a community or state with such a government."

Now what do you mean by "modern democracy? "

Websters defines "modern" as :

"Of or characteristic of the present or recent times"

Democracy in 1776 was not modern in that it did not resemble what we have today. Women, the poor and blacks could not vote and could not participate in government. The sole people who could exercise representative democracy in 1776 America was a minority of the population - property owning white men.

This is by definition an "oligarchy", per Websters:

"A government in which the power is in the hands of a few persons or a state having such a government, also the group of persons holding the power in such a state."

Therefore, 1776 America had an OLIGARCHY, not a democracy. Furthermore, it was not 'modern' in that it was measurably and substantially different than what we have in our 'modern' times. Just the simple fact that it is much more inclusive, (all citizens can vote) is proof of this.

Finally, you have not addressed my earlier post; by definition, the Electoral College system that America has, is strictly speaking, not democracy.

Oh and while you are cracking the books in your research look up some English history and the role of their parliament in government, which pre dates 1776 by centuries.

I eagerly await your insightful comment.

THANK YOU! all im asking is his meaning for "modern", because some will obviously see modern differently