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Old 07-16-2002, 11:15 PM   #13
FYRHWK1
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the only explanation i've ever seen for a numerically higher gear causing more acceleration is it makes it easier for th emotor to turn the wheel.
but if gears multiplied torque, then why dont you see massive increases when you switch from say a 2.73 to a 4.11? even if its kept into the 1:1 gear it should have some effect? also, where doe shte leverage come in? a gear twice as high numerically would have to have twice the diameter, and that wouldnt fit inside a differential housing, and without oubling the leverage how do you double the torque?? not accusing, just asking
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